I am currently considering a Harwood that has a "redone" dial. Absolutely horrible, believe me. I consider purchasing an original Harwood dial (with some patina, but not "redone" to any extent.
Would it be "unethical" to combine both, resulting in a watch looking nice? This watch did not leave the factory with that dial, it clearly would be a "redial".
This case would be insofar clear in that I did the redial myself and need to disclose it upon sale.
I might generally mention that I personally do not mind redials all to much and prefer a redial with a decent looking dial over an original having a grubby dial. Simply for optical reasons and because if I wear it, I look at it frequently and do not want to think *bläh* every time I look. It is clear that the value of a redial must be lower than an original with just as decent original dial.
What do think how a ranking in value shold be in the cases original but grubby/awful dial vs. redial with a decent dial? I personally would pass on the original and take the redial instead. And perhaps be happy about the nicer (?) price.
Cheers, Bernhard