Yesterday an international transaction was concluded : I received three watch straps in the post last night from abroad. I will not say which company from, but I will say that a certain #strapnerd who has been lurking in this thread is the reason why I know of them (he almost has the whole collection, so it is safe to assume he received the same treatment several times).
They invoiced them to me officially at an incorrect value. Why? I guess so that I wouldn't have to pay tax, which I didn't. Did I ask them to do this? Absolutely not. Whats my opinion? "Thanks guys! You rock!". Do I feel guilty? No. Should I feel guilty? I don't see why...try buy nice straps in CH (but that is irrelevant). Does that make me an immoral bastard? I don't believe so, but you can judge for yourself. Am I at risk from legal repercussions?????
The moral high-ground : we have a bit of a quandary. In my mind I am in the clear, but technically (with respect to the OP's problem statement) I am less in the clear than the recipient of the OP's bracelet would be as if the authorities were to go snooping in my credit card account and could correlate that particular higher transaction to what came through the post at a lower value, they would see the discrepancy, and could thus hold me accountable for avoiding import tax (regardless that I did not ask for this, I am fairly certain they could not be bothered to go through email correspondence - the facts are the bank transaction and physical import). I strongly doubt that they could/would do anything to the sender of the straps (who is in another country, and, remember, who sent false official documentation).
So, what would you do? And how is this any different TECHNICALLY ("buyer asked seller" morality aside!) from the OP's problem statement apart from the fact that I don't have a transaction to the seller that matches the value they sent (and he would)?