JwRosenthal
·At some point, when words take on multiple definitions, they become useless.
At some point, when words take on multiple definitions, they become useless.
To clarify, I'm asking you why, if it is truly "intrinsic" to the work, why isn't it instantly recognizable.
Well, @michael22 , I don't find that argument to be compelling. You are suggesting, among other things, and to revert to one of my previous examples, that the preference of a canvas with used cigarette butts glued indiscriminately to it, over a Rembrandt master work, would, because humans are not limited in their preferences, and preferences can change over time, somehow be an expression of equally good taste as a preference for the latter. I rather doubt that any but a tiny percentage of people might agree that because it is theoretically possible that such a change in preference could take place on a mass scale, the two works are therefore somehow indistinguishable in terms of their intrinsic beauty, emotional power, or the level of skill required to create them.
If your point, however, is that every individual is entitled to their preferences, and that they are all in some sense equal, I might agree. But when one places value judgements on them, the exercise obviously becomes more complicated., and not just on terms of art or music.
I do agree that taste is not a popularity contest, and never suggested that it is. I even made the distinction between mature and immature markets (or contexts), and pointed out that artists whose work has been held in extremely high regard for centuries have more solid standing than those whose work is relatively young.
Along the same lines, elections are a poor analogy, as they are clearly transitory popularity contests, held and decided within a very narrow spectrum of time. There is also tremendous room for disinformation and money to influence elections, so the results are often not based on either good information or careful analyses. I would say that television, which is also a form of popularity contest, would be a better example to support your view, and there is an interesting tangent to the discussion that could be tied to TV, that being how some art works are created in a relatively independent manner, while others are clearly reflections of, or responses to broad, popular culture.
Your last point is a bit of a straw man, albeit an interesting one. I never suggested that being able to discern good taste included any sort of detailed ranking of taste. That would, in my view, be taking things much too far.
Finally, and again, this is at least partly a semantic problem. Take my original example of the Vogels. One could argue, it seems to me, that either something very unusual and special underpinned their choices of art, that it was largely a matter of luck, or that there was no significance whatsoever. But even those who agree with me that it was the former might reasonably object to my use of the word "taste" in the context of the discussion. There may be a better word to express what I was attempting to say.
Similarly with your example of the Vogels. At some point in history, the Vogels became a valuable part of the story, & I suspect that each artwork they collected is now more famous & lauded, simply because they owned it.
It can't have been a "diversion" given that one relates to those who perceive the art, and the others to the artists and artworks themselves. I have attempted to refine terms, or use some additional ones, in order to make my views more clear, but the word "taste" was always applied to the viewer, so the others, used in reference to the artist and/or works, are in a different vein entirely.
If you mean that my descriptions of art and its impact on viewers have included various terms, yes, that's true. But a "diversion"? That makes no sense, as the terms that I have used are all consistent in the context of their references.
Perhaps you didn't clearly indicate it, but when you say this (bold emphasis mine):
"If these works were so obviously master works, why isn't this recognized straight away?"
you are implying that I somehow asserted that they were, since their inception, "obviously master works". And I didn't.
But to answer your question, it may well be that certain works were recognized as such by a certain percentage of viewers, but also that some works require time in order for them to be fully appreciated. This happens in other areas as well, including philosophy and mathematics. Not all "great" or "important" treatises and theorems were immediately considered to be so.
You are making an assumption that these two things are intimately related. Why does the recognition have to be immediate? As Tony said, the concept is not invalidated if takes some time, for some people, to see something that had always been there.
Again, I am not. I am asking if they are truly master works, have intrinsic beauty, and all the other loosey-goosey, firm as half set jello terms that keep getting used here, does it take time for the recognition to happen?
And if it takes time, what does that say about the works now that Tony doesn't find important? Is he missing the boat by relying on the current consensus of experts, collectors, etc.? Why does it take time and a consensus for things that are so obviously "great" or insert your term of choice here, to be recognized as such?
This all goes back to the Vogel's, where Tony insists that their choices would inevitably be seen as great, where I don't believe that is the case. The market, for whatever reason has come to recognize then as such, but even Tony recognizes that being in the right place at the right time was a factor (luck) so I am not convinced of the inevitability of the choices being what they are today.
Cigarette butts might not be your personal thing but we're not comparing apples to apples here.
Are the abstract works of Naum Gabo or Henry Moore inferior to Canova or Rodin because they're not figurative sculpture?
Or is it the lack of perceived effort that singles the anecdotal 'butt-art', (and indeed the Newman) out for criticism?
Where is the inferiority line drawn?
Duchamp, Pollock, Rothko, Koons?
Tony touched upon it earlier by mentioning the 'power' in art - art is about how it makes the viewer (or listener) feel and not necessarily the style or the manner of the creation of the art.
Let's take Tony's example of the "cigarette butt" art, from an anonymous unskilled artisan, with zero backstory and change it up a bit...
Do we now see this Tony generated example in the same way Tony describes here?
"I rather doubt that any but a tiny percentage of people might agree that because it is theoretically possible that such a change in preference could take place on a mass scale, the two works are therefore somehow indistinguishable in terms of their intrinsic beauty, emotional power, or the level of skill required to create them."
Ultimately, you're claiming that no value judgements are possible because there is always someone who may disagree, and that is, to my mind, a reductio ad absurdum argument.
Would the cig butts work require more skill than a Rembrandt? No, in fact vastly less.
Would it be more beautiful? No, not in any normally accepted use of the word. There would again be no comparison.
Individuals cam claim to respond emotionally to any work of art, but that in no way leads to the conclusion that all art is somehow equal.
If you can’t distinguish it from what a child could render, then it’s not high skill. If asked to, and shown, I could render the blue painting above. If asked to, and shown, I could never replicate a Veronese.
I'm not arguing that that no value judgements are possible - in fact I'm claiming all values are simply judgements, and not "intrinsic" to the work...
Define 'skill' in art.
The 'cig butts' may take a great deal more intellectual skill than a bloke that is handy with a paint brush
All art is in fact equal, in that it is the intent of the artist that is the essence of art.